6411: Module Exam

  • Question 1

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Which nursing interventions would be considered priority when managing a client with life-threatening myxedema coma? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:

    CorrectB.

    Administer 50% dextrose to raise glucose levels.

    CorrectC.

    Administer 3% sodium IV solution to increase sodium levels.

    CorrectD.

    Place on oxygen therapy to encourage deep breathing.
    Answers:

    A.

    CorrectB.

    CorrectC.

    CorrectD.

    E.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Myxedema coma is a life-threatening, end-stage expression of hypothyroidism. It is characterized by coma, hypothermia, CV collapse, hypoventilation, and severe metabolic disorders that include low sodium, low glucose and lactic acidosis. Treatment includes aggressive management of precipitating factors; supportive therapy such as management of CV status, hyponatremia, and hypoglycemia; and thyroid replacement therapy. If hypothermia is present, active rewarming is contraindicated because it may induce vasodilation and vascular collapse. Administering sedatives frequently could be harmful since the person is unable to metabolize sedatives, analgesics, and anesthetic drugs.
  • Question 2

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Following the identification of low blood levels of cortisol and low 24-hour urinary free cortisol, a 51-year-old female client has been diagnosed with a primary adrenal cortical insufficiency. Which health consequence would be attributable to her low levels of cortisol?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectB.

    Impaired immunologic and inflammatory response
    Answers:

    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Cortisol plays a central role in the normal functioning of the immune response and inflammation. Exophthalmos is associated with Graves disease and secondary sex characteristics are a function of adrenal androgens. Potassium and sodium are regulated by mineralocorticoids.
  • Question 3

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Following destruction of the pituitary gland, ACTH stimulation stops. Without ACTH to stimulate the adrenal glands, the adrenal glands’ production of cortisol drops. This is an example of which type of endocrine disorder?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectA.

    Secondary
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: In secondary disorders of endocrine function, the target gland is essentially normal, but defective levels of stimulating hormones or releasing factors from the pituitary system alter its function.
  • Question 4

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A client is admitted to the hospital in Addisonian crisis 1 month after a diagnosis of Addison disease. The nurse knows which clinical manifestation would support this diagnosis?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectD.

    Change in level of consciousness and profound hypotension
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Acute adrenal crisis is a life-threatening situation. Exposure to even a minor illness or stress can cause a client with Addison disease to develop nausea, vomiting, muscular weakness, hypotension, dehydration, and vascular collapse (which causes a change in LOC). Hemorrhage (low BP) can be caused by septicemia, adrenal trauma, anticoagulant therapy, adrenal vein thrombosis, or adrenal metastases. A hyperactive reflex may indicate disease of the pyramidal tract above the level of the reflex arc being tested. Generalized hyperactivity of DTRs may be caused by hyperthyroidism. Any tear or hole in the membrane that surrounds the brain and spinal cord (dura) can allow the fluid that surrounds those organs to leak. This fluid is called the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). When it leaks out, the pressure around the brain and spinal cord drops. Causes of leakage through the dura include certain head, brain, or spinal surgeries; head injury; placement of tubes for epidural anesthesia or pain medications; or lumbar puncture. Irregular heart rates (dysrhythmias) may be caused by many different factors, including coronary artery disease, electrolyte imbalances in the blood (such as sodium or potassium), changes in the heart muscle, or injury from a heart attack.
  • Question 5

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Which of these activities or conditions will inhibit growth hormone (GH)?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectC.

    Obesity
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: GH is inhibited by increased glucose levels, free fatty acid release, cortisol, and obesity. It is stimulated by hypoglycemia, fasting starvation, increased blood levels of amino acids, and stress conditions such as trauma, excitement, emotional stress, and heavy exercise.
  • Question 6

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Following the identification of low levels of T3 and T4 coupled with the presence of a goiter, a 28-year-old female has been diagnosed with Hashimoto thyroiditis. In light of this diagnosis, which assessment result would constitute an unexpected finding?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectD.

    Increased white cell count and audible crackles on chest auscultation.
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: An increased white cell count and the presence of adventitious fluid in the lungs are not classic findings associated with hypothyroidism. Myxedema, weight gain, lethargy, and dry skin and nails are commonly associated with low levels of thyroid hormones.
  • Question 7

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Which statement best captures the role of the adrenal cortex in maintaining homeostasis?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectA.

    The adrenal cortical hormones are primarily steroids and sex hormones.
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The adrenal cortex is responsible for secreting three types of hormones: the glucocorticoids, the mineralocorticoids, and the adrenal androgens. The adrenal medulla produces epinephrine and norepinephrine. There are no alternate production sites for adrenal cortical hormones. The adrenal androgens are not responsible for normal sexual function.
  • Question 8

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    An adult diagnosed with type 1 diabetes is aware of the multiple effects that insulin has on his metabolism. Which physiologic processes are actions of insulin? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:

    CorrectA.

    Inhibiting protein breakdown

    CorrectD.

    Facilitating triglyceride synthesis by the liver

    CorrectE.

    Promoting glucose uptake by target cells.
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    CorrectE.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The actions of insulin are threefold: (1) it promotes glucose uptake by target cells and provides for glucose storage as glycogen, (2) it prevents fat and glycogen breakdown, and (3) it inhibits gluconeogenesis and increases protein synthesis. Insulin acts to promote fat storage by increasing the transport of glucose into fat cells. It also facilitates triglyceride synthesis from glucose in fat cells and inhibits the intracellular breakdown of stored triglycerides. Insulin also inhibits protein breakdown. It does not directly influence the metabolic needs of body cells.
  • Question 9

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Which statement best captures an aspect of the function of the hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal (HPA) system?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectC.

    The pituitary gland communicates with the adrenal cortex through the release of ACTH.
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: ACTH mediates between the anterior pituitary gland and the adrenal cortex in the HPA system. ACTH is released by the pituitary, not the hypothalamus, and CRH acts on the pituitary, not the adrenal cortex. CRH flows from the hypothalamus to the pituitary, not vice versa.
  • Question 10

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    An adolescent male with type 1 diabetes is exasperated by his regimen of blood sugar monitoring and insulin administration, and has told his mother that he wants to scale both back. Which response by his mother is most accurate?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectA.

    “Even though it’s hard to do, you need to continue so you don’t go blind or need a kidney transplant down the road.”
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Nephropathies and retinopathies are common complications of poor glycemic control. Complications of diabetes are not noted to be more acute in younger individuals. Hyperglycemia is not normally associated with pain or weight gain. Conscientious diabetes control does not result in a resolution of the disease.
  • Question 11

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    An endocrinologist is providing care for a 30-year-old male who has lived with the effects of increased levels of growth hormone (GH). Which teaching point about the client’s future health risks is most accurate?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectB.

    “When your pituitary gland is enlarged, there’s a real risk that you’ll develop some sight deficiencies.”
    Answers:

    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: GH excess is associated with tumor formation and consequent compression of cranial nerves is responsible for vision. Damage to the hypothalamus and liver are not common sequelae. While the beta cells of the pancreas can “burn out,” the primary effect of excess GH is to increase insulin secretion.
  • Question 12

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A 3-year-old girl has just been diagnosed with type 1A diabetes. Her parents are currently receiving education from the diabetes education nurse. How can the nurse best explain to the parents the etiology (cause) of their daughter’s diabetes?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectC.

    “The problem that underlies her diabetes is that her own body has destroyed the cells in her pancreas that produce insulin.”
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Type 1A, or immune-mediated, diabetes involves the autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells and a consequent absolute lack of insulin. Exogenous insulin is required as dietary control alone is insufficient. The central problem is an absolute lack of insulin production rather than deranged release.
  • Question 13

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    The mother of 6-year-old male and female fraternal twins has brought her son to see a pediatrician because he is nearly 4 inches shorter than his sister. Which phenomenon would the physician most likely suspect as contributing factor to the boy’s short stature?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectC.

    A shortage of hypothalamic GHRH production
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Inadequate levels of hypothalamic GHRH will result in adequate production but inadequate release of GH by the pituitary. Genetic short stature is less likely given the disparity between his height and his twin’s, and a shortage of IGF receptors is not a noted pathology. While poorly controlled diabetes can contribute to short stature, excess insulin production is not a likely factor.
  • Question 14

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    An infant born with congenital hypothyroidism who does not receive care from any health care provider is likely to develop which complications? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:

    CorrectA.

    Impaired physical growth

    CorrectB.

    Intellectual disability
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    E.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Thyroid hormone is essential for normal growth and brain development, almost half of which occurs during the first 6 months of life. If untreated, congenital hypothyroidism causes intellectual disability and impairs physical growth. Down syndrome is a congenital birth defect and not caused by hypothyroidism.
  • Question 15

    0 out of 2 points

    Incorrect
    A nurse on a medical unit is providing care for a 37-year-old female client who has a diagnosis of Graves disease. Which treatment would the nurse most likely anticipate providing for the client?
    Selected Answer:

    IncorrectD.

    Administration of levothyroxine to supplement thyroid function
    Answers:

    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The hyperthyroidism that constitutes Graves disease can often be mitigated by the administration of beta-adrenergic blocking medications. Levothyroxine would be used to address hypothyroidism. Calcium channel blockers are not an identified treatment modality for Graves disease. Somatostatin analogs are used to treat GH excess.
  • Question 16

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A female client presented to her primary care physician with classic signs/symptoms of Cushing syndrome. Upon testing, it was discovered that the client had vaginal small cell carcinoma. How can the health care providers explain the Cushing syndrome signs/symptoms to this client?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectA.

    “The tumor in your vagina is secreting a hormone called adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which is responsible for these signs/symptoms.”
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Hyperfunction is usually associated with excessive hormone production. This can result from excessive stimulation and hyperplasia of the endocrine gland or from a hormone-producing tumor. A clinical example of this phenomenon is evidenced by the case of a woman with vaginal small cell carcinoma who also presented with Cushing syndrome. After testing, it was determined that the tumor was secreting ACTH. In this situation, the cause was not related to a pituitary problem. There is a connection between Cushing syndrome and the carcinoma. The thyroid gland is not responsible for Cushing syndrome.
  • Question 17

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    An adult male who is 6’11” tall has a diagnosis of acromegaly. The man is explaining to a curious but sympathetic coworker exactly what accounts for his extraordinary height. Which explanation demonstrates a sound understanding of his health problem?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectC.

    “A tumor in my brain threw off my hormone levels after I finished adolescence.”
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Acromegaly is associated with adult onset, and is nearly always involves an adenoma. Increased GH as a child and liver dysfunction are not noted contributors to acromegaly. High levels of GH can cause overproduction of insulin and eventual diabetes, but diabetes does not itself lead to acromegaly.
  • Question 18

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A client with pancreatitis is admitted with weight loss, nausea, and vomiting. To maintain nutrition, the physician orders parenteral nutrition to be started. Knowing that a major side effect of parenteral nutrition is a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, the nurse should assess the client for which clinical manifestations?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectA.

    Dry lips, excess urine output, and seizures.
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state is characterized by high blood glucose (>600 mg/dL [33.3 mmol/L]), dehydration (dry lips), depression of sensorium, hemiparesis, seizures, and coma. The client may also experience weakness, polyuria, and excessive thirst. HHS may occur in various conditions, including type 2 diabetes, acute pancreatitis, severe infection, MI, and treatment with oral or parenteral nutrition solutions.
  • Question 19

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A 40-year-old man who is morbidly obese and leads a sedentary lifestyle has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Which aspects of the man’s obesity likely contributed to his new health problem?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectD.

    Free fatty acids contribute to problems such as beta cell dysfunction and insulin resistance.
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Type 2 diabetes in obese people is thought to link to the actions of free fatty acids, which include beta cell dysfunction (lipotoxicity), insulin resistance, glucose underutilization, and the accumulation of FFAs and triglycerides to reduce hepatic insulin sensitivity.
  • Question 20

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A 60 year-old man has long managed his type 1 diabetes effectively with a combination of vigilant blood sugar monitoring, subcutaneous insulin administration, and conscientious eating habits. This morning, however, his wife has noted that he appears pale and clammy and appears to be in a stupor, though he is responsive. She suspects that he has made an error in his insulin administration and that he is experiencing a hypoglycemic episode. Which action should be the wife’s first choice?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectC.

    Administration of 15 to 20 g of glucose in a concentrated carbohydrate source.
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: An insulin reaction necessitates intervention in addition to careful observation. The ideal response to an insulin reaction in a still conscious client is the administration of 15 to 20 g of glucose in a concentrated carbohydrate source. Glucagon or D50 would be indicated if the client is unconscious or unable to swallow.
  • Question 21

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A client with severe dermatitis from poison ivy has been prescribed prednisone, a corticosteroid, for the treatment of his skin condition. The client has been informed to gradually taper off rather than abruptly stop the prednisone. What is the most accurate rationale for this dosing protocol?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectA.

    The client’s hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal (HPA) system will require recovery time before normal adrenal function is restored.
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The suppression of the HPA system that accompanies steroid therapy requires time for a return to normal function. Dependency on the drug itself is not the rationale for tapering, and HPA function is suppressed, not heightened, during therapy. Abrupt cessation can contribute to an Addison-like response, not Cushing syndrome.
  • Question 22

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Which scenario would put a client at risk for experiencing a thyroid problem due to a decrease in thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:

    CorrectA.

    18-year-old female client with anorexia nervosa weighing 78 pounds who has consumed no protein for the past 3 years.

    CorrectC.

    55-year-old male with cirrhosis due to alcohol abuse

    CorrectD.

    75-year-old man receiving chronic glucocorticoid therapy to treat his severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    CorrectD.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: A number of disease conditions and pharmacologic agents can decrease the amount of binding protein in the plasma or influence the binding of hormone. Glucocorticoid medications and systemic disease conditions such as protein malnutrition, nephritic syndrome, and cirrhosis decrease TBG concentrations.
  • Question 23

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    The nurse knows that a client with diabetes admitted for a lower limb infection likely is experiencing which pathophysiologic principle listed below? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:

    CorrectA.

    Hyperglycemia may provide an environment that enhances the growth of microorganisms.

    CorrectB.

    Clients with chronic diabetes may have vascular problems that impair circulation and therefore cells needed for adequate inflammatory response can’t reach the site.

    CorrectD.

    Many clients with diabetes have sensory deficits and ignore minor trauma just because they can’t feel it in their feet.
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    E.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Suboptimal response to infection in a person with diabetes is caused by the presence of chronic complications, such as vascular disease and neuropathies, and by the presence of hyperglycemia and altered neutrophil function. Certain types of infections occur with increased frequency in people with diabetes: soft tissue infections of the extremities, osteomyelitis, UTIs and pyelonephritis, Candida infections of the skin/mucous surfaces, dental caries, and periodontal disease.
  • Question 24

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A woman with a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes has been ordered a hemoglobin A1C test for the first time by her primary care provider. The woman states, “I don’t see why you want to test my blood cells when it’s sugar that’s the problem.” What aspect of physiology will underlie the care provider’s response to the client?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectD.

    The amount of glucose attached to A1C cells reflects the average blood glucose levels over the life of the cell.
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Glucose entry into red blood cells is not insulin dependent, and the rate at which glucose becomes attached to the hemoglobin molecule depends on blood glucose levels. A1C levels thus indirectly indicate glucose levels. Hemoglobin synthesis, the metabolic needs of hemoglobin, and an agonist role of insulin do not underlie the A1C test.
  • Question 25

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Which statement best describes an aspect of the normal process of glucose metabolism?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectB.

    Glucose that exceeds metabolic needs is converted and stored by the liver.
    Answers:

    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Approximately two-thirds of the glucose that is ingested with a meal is removed from the blood and stored in the liver as glycogen. Between meals, the liver releases glucose as a means of maintaining blood glucose within its normal range. Normal glucose metabolism does not involve large variations in blood glucose levels in response to food intake, and excess glucose does not normally remain in circulation. Glucose levels are not primarily maintained by the kidneys.
  • Question 26

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Which statement best captures an aspect of the role of hormones in the body?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectC.

    Some chemical substances can function as hormones or be integrated with central/peripheral nervous systems.
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Some chemicals, such as epinephrine, can function as both a hormone and be closely integrated with the central and peripheral nervous systems as well as the immune systems, leading to current terminology such as “neuroendocrine.” Hormones modulate, but do not initiate, changes in the body. One hormone may exert multiple effects on multiple body systems. Hormones are produced by a variety of body tissues, not solely by endocrine glands.
  • Question 27

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    An example of a single hormone that can exert effects in different tissues is erythropoietin. Erythropoietin is made in the kidney and stimulates the bone marrow to produce:
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectD.

    Red blood cells
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: A characteristic of hormones is that a single hormone can exert various effects in different tissues. For example, erythropoietin, a traditional circulating hormone, is made in the kidney and stimulates erythropoiesis in the bone marrow.
  • Question 28

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Which of the following best describes the half-life of a highly protein-bound drug such as thyroxine (99% protein bound)? The half-life would be:
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectD.

    much longer to reduce the concentration of the hormone by one half.
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The half-life of a hormone—the time it takes for the body to reduce the concentration of the hormone by one half—is positively correlated with its percentage of protein binding. Thyroxine, which is more than 99% protein bound, has a half-life of 6 days whereas aldosterone, 15% bound, has a half-life of only 25 minutes.
  • Question 29

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    The nurse is discussing the diagnostic workup with a client suspected of having metastatic thyroid cancer. How should the nurse explain the purpose of a scan involving a combination of positron emission tomography (PET) and computed tomography (CT)?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectA.

    “A PET scan focuses on tissue functioning while the CT is best for looking at tissue structure.”
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: PET/CT are done because the CT component allows for examination of tissue structure while PET scans provide information about tissue function. They are not done for reasons related to primary vs. metastatic tumor identification nor for reasons related to differing sizes of tumors. The radiation associated with CT scanning is not therapeutic.
  • Question 30

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A 48-year-old woman has been found to have nodules on her thyroid that must be biopsied to determine whether or not they are malignant. Which imaging technique will be most helpful to the surgeon in visualization of the nodes for fine needle aspiration?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectA.

    Ultrasound
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Thyroid ultrasound is recommended for managing thyroid nodules and can aid in visualization of the nodule for biopsy (fine-needle aspiration [FNA]), which is necessary to help distinguish benign from malignant etiology. Magnetic resonance imaging is the preferred choice for pituitary and hypothalamic imaging. Isotopic imaging includes radioactive scanning of the thyroid (e.g., using radioiodine), parathyroids (e.g., using sestamibi), and adrenals (e.g., using metaiodobenzylguanidine [MIBG] to detect pheochromocytoma).
  • Question 31

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A 51-year-old woman has been experiencing signs and symptoms of perimenopause and has sought help from her family physician. A deficiency in estrogen levels has been determined to be a contributing factor. Which phenomenon could potentially underlie the woman’s health problem?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectD.

    Insufficient estrogen production within the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of the relevant cells.
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Steroids such as estrogen are produced in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Synthesis and release are not separate processes, as in the case of peptide hormones. Prohormones are associated with peptides, polypeptides, and protein hormones.
  • Question 32

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A 38-year-old woman takes clomiphene, an infertility drug that works by competing with, and thereby blocking, cellular receptors for estrogen. Which statement is most likely to be true of this client?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectD.

    Estrogen will continue to pass freely through the cellular membranes.
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Because estrogen is a steroid hormone, its receptors in target cells are located inside the cell membrane, and their blockage does not affect the movement of the hormone into and out of the cell. Receptors are specific for each hormone, so no hormones other than estrogen will be blocked. Up-regulation occurs when hormone levels are decreased, and in this case the estrogen level will increase. Second messengers, such as cAMP, are only activated by peptide hormones and catecholamines.
  • Question 33

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Since steroid hormones are bound to protein carriers for transport, this means:
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectB.

    they are inactive in the bound state.
    Answers:

    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Steroid hormones are bound to protein carriers for transport and are inactive in the bound state. Their activity depends on the availability of transport carriers.
  • Question 34

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    When explaining about structural classifications to a group of students, the instructor discusses the peptides and proteins. The instructor talks about small hormones and hormones as large and complex as growth hormone (GH), which has approximately how many amino acids involved?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectA.

    200 amino acids
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Growth hormone is a very large and complex protein which has approximately 200 amino acids.
  • Question 35

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    During a thyroid crisis, which medication may increase dissociation of free hormone from the binding proteins, resulting in a worsening effect on the client?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectB.

    Acetylsalicylic acid, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)
    Answers:

    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) competes with thyroid hormone for binding to transport proteins. When aspirin is administered to people with excessive levels of circulating thyroid hormone, such as during thyroid crisis, serious effects may occur because of the increased dissociation of free hormone from the binding proteins. The other medications do not have this effect.
  • Question 36

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Which statement best captures the essence of a second messenger in the mechanisms of the endocrine system?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectC.

    Second messengers act as the intracellular signal that responds to the presence of a hormone.
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Second messengers interact with hormones that cannot cross the cell membrane and they mediate the ultimate effect on the cell. They are not produced by the hormone-producing cell and they are necessary to bring about hormonal effects, not simply for increasing the intensity of the effect. They are not an alternative mechanism of effect but rather a prerequisite for certain hormonal effects on body cells.
  • Question 37

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    During the follicular stage of menstruation, increased estradiol production causes an increase in FSH production. This increase in FSH production by the anterior pituitary gland will have what effect on the follicle?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectB.

    The follicle will die, which results in a fall of FSH.
    Answers:

    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: In positive feedback control, rising levels of a hormone cause another gland to release a hormone that is stimulating to the first. Increased estradiol production during the follicular stage of the menstrual cycle causes increased FSH production by the anterior pituitary gland. This stimulates further increases in estradiol levels until the demise of the follicle.
  • Question 38

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    An adult client with a possible growth hormone (GH)-secreting tumor is undergoing testing. If a glucose load is given, which response by the body would confirm the client has a GH-secreting tumor?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectD.

    Elevated GH level after a glucose load
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: When a GH-secreting tumor is suspected, the GH response to a glucose load is measured as part of the diagnostic workup. Normally, a glucose load would suppress GH levels. However, in adults with GH-secreting tumors (a condition known as acromegaly), GH levels are not suppressed.
  • Question 39

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A nurse caring for a client who has undergone an antithyroid peroxidase (anti-TPO) antibody test with elevated results should be prepared to educate the client about which disease process?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectB.

    Hashimoto thyroiditis
    Answers:

    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Diagnosis of Hashimoto thyroiditis is usually made by detecting elevated levels of anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies (TPOAb) in the serum. Gigantism is diagnosed as an excessive secretion of growth hormone. There may be high levels of insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), which also stimulates excessive skeletal growth. States of hyperparathyroidism are associated with increased levels of 1,25-(OH)2D3. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is an important regulator of calcium and phosphate levels in the blood. Diabetes is diagnosed following fasting plasma glucose test level of 126 mg/dL (6.99 mmol/L) or greater. Glycated hemoglobin testing (Hemoglobin A1C) is a test that measures the quantity of a subtype of hemoglobin that has been glucated, meaning glucose molecules have become bound to the hemoglobin molecule. In conditions of hyperglycemia, the A1C level is increased.
  • Question 40

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A student asks the faculty member, “I just do not get how a hormone can be produced within a neuron and then travel via the blood to affect target cells. Can you give me a couple of examples of this phenomenon?” Which faculty response(s) answers this student’s question? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:

    CorrectA.

    Epinephrine

    CorrectE.

    Antidiuretic hormone
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    CorrectE.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Neuroendocrine actions are when a hormone produced within a neuron then travels through circulation to exert effects on target cells. Vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone) and epinephrine are examples of hormonal substances with neuroendocrine effects. Sex steroids is a paracrine action. Paracrine action or signaling is a form of cell-to-cell communication in which a cell produces a signal to induce changes in nearby cells, altering the behavior of those cells. Insulin is an autocrine hormone. Autocrine action is a mode of hormone action to which hormones bind to receptors on the cell and affects the cell that produces it, like when growth factors that stimulate cell division. Paracrine describes hormone action where hormones are released from cells and bind to receptor on nearby cells and affects their function. The anterior pituitary gland secretes LH which stimulates secretion of testosterone development of interstitial tissue of testes. There is no neuroendocrine action involved in the secretion of testosterone.
  • Question 41

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A client with a newly diagnosed adrenal tumor asks the nurse, “So what kind of hormones will be affected if I have my adrenal gland removed?” Which response(s) by the nurse is accurate to relay to this client? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:

    CorrectB.

    “Blood glucose levels may become elevated.”

    CorrectC.

    “It could affect sodium and potassium electrolyte levels.”

    CorrectE.

    “You will have changes in your sympathetic nervous system responses to stress.”
    Answers:

    A.

    CorrectB.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    CorrectE.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The adrenal cortex is responsible for mineralocorticosteroids, mainly aldosterone which increases sodium absorption and potassium loss by the kidney. Glucocorticoids, mainly cortisol affects regulation of blood glucose levels. Adrenal medulla hormone epinephrine serves as neurotransmitters for the sympathetic nervous system. Growth hormone which stimulates growth of bone and muscle is secreted by anterior pituitary. The thyroid (follicular cells) increases metabolic rate by releasing T3 and T4.
  • Question 42

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A client with a new diagnosis of an endocrine disorder is unclear how the body can control the levels of different hormones over time. Which statement most accurately underlies the dominant regulation process of hormone levels in the body?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectA.

    With input from various sensors, hormone production and release are adjusted based on existing hormone levels.
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Most hormone levels are controlled by way of a negative feedback cycle, in which low levels stimulate production and/or release. A positive feedback cycle would not achieve this effect. While some hormones are released on a diurnal schedule, the dominant form of hormone regulation in the body is that of negative feedback. Hormone release is not predetermined by the pituitary gland.
  • Question 43

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A 21-year-old female is suspected of having inadequate function of her hypothalamic–pituitary–thyroid system. Her care provider is planning to inject thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) and then measure her levels of TSH. Which diagnostic test is being performed?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectA.

    Stimulation test
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: A stimulation test involves the introduction of an element that stimulates the production of another factor or hormone followed by measurement of that hormone. This is not the case in a suppression test, RIA test, or metabolite excretion test.
  • Question 44

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Which statement best captures the relationship between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland as it relates to endocrine function?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectA.

    The hypothalamus receives input from numerous sources throughout the body and directs the pituitary to then control many target glands and cells.
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The hypothalamus can be viewed as a bridge by which signals from multiple systems are relayed to the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus collects data from sources throughout the body rather than directly measuring levels. Communication normally flows from the hypothalamus to the pituitary.
  • Question 45

    0 out of 2 points

    Incorrect
    The nurse is preparing a client for a radioiodine test to assess thyroid functioning. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask the client prior to preparing this client for this diagnostic test?
    Selected Answer:

    IncorrectC.

    “Will you be able to fast for 12 hours for the test?”
    Answers:

    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The nurse needs to know if the client may have been exposed to a nonradioactive iodine contrast material (such as those used in CT scans), as these will interfere with the use of radioiodine imaging studies of the thyroid for approximately 4 weeks. Claustrophobia and lying still is relevant to a CT or MRI but not a radioactive iodine test. The reason to administer this test is usually abnormal thyroid levels, so this question is not a priority. Fasting is not required but iodine-containing foods should be avoided.
  • Question 46

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A client with a history of an endocrine disorder exhibits signs and symptoms of hormone deficiency. Which process would the client’s care team most likely rule out first as a contributing factor?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectC.

    Up-regulation has increased the sensitivity of the body to particular hormone levels.
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Up-regulation is a response to low hormone levels in which the number of receptors increases. As such, it would not likely result in signs and symptoms of deficiency but is rather a compensatory mechanism that counters a deficiency. Insufficient numbers of receptors, low affinity, and down-regulation could all contribute to signs and symptoms of a hormone deficiency.
  • Question 47

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A nurse who works in the office of an endocrinologist is orientating a new staff member. Which teaching point is the nurse justified in including in the orientation? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:

    CorrectA.

    “A bodily process can be the result of the combined effect of several different hormones from different sources.”

    CorrectB.

    “It’s common for production of hormones to be far removed from the tissue where they ultimately exert their effect.”

    CorrectC.

    “Sometimes hormones act locally on the area where they were produced, like in the case of paracrine and autocrine actions.”

    CorrectD.

    “A single hormone can act on not only one process or organ, but often on several different locations or processes.”
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    CorrectB.

    CorrectC.

    CorrectD.

    E.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: A single hormone can exert various effects in different tissues or, conversely, a single function can be regulated by several different hormones. Hormones act both distant from their source and more locally, as in the case of autocrine and paracrine actions. Hormones are normally present at all times.
  • Question 48

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Which hormones are derivatives of cholesterol?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectD.

    Aldosterone and testosterone
    Answers:

    A.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Steroids such as aldosterone and testosterone are a classification of hormones that are derived from cholesterol. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are both amino acids. Insulin and glucagon and classified among peptides, polypeptides, proteins, and glycoproteins. Eicosanoids and retinoids consist of fatty acid compounds.
  • Question 49

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    The nurse administers a glucocorticoid medication to a client with pneumonia. Which of these does the nurse teach the client is the purpose of the medication?
    Selected Answer:

    CorrectA.

    To decrease airway inflammation
    Answers:

    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Glucocorticoids affect metabolism of all nutrients and have anti-inflammatory effects, which can assist with airway inflammation.
  • Question 50

    0 out of 2 points

    Incorrect
    A client whose only diagnosis is essential hypertension is fasting for a fasting blood glucose and lipid profile test to be performed in the morning. The client’s regular medications are currently on hold. What is the nurse’s priority action?
    Selected Answer:

    IncorrectD.

    Monitor client’s blood glucose level to avoid hypoglycemia overnight.
    Answers:

    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: This client is not at risk for hypoglycemia simply because of fasting. The negative feedback loop between blood glucose (BG) level and insulin levels will cause insulin levels to drop as the client’s BG drops. Then, glucagon will be released and bind to surface receptors on liver cells to send a second intracellular message for glycogen breakdown, increasing BG and preventing hypoglycemia. The client is not taking the scheduled antihypertensives so the nurse should measure blood pressure and heart rate based on degree of risk for this client. Being off these medications means there is less risk for dizziness or orthostatic hypotension. When fasting, a client is permitted to consume water to prevent dehydration.

Thursday, November 10, 2022 9:41:24 AM ESTmM