Exam questions: NURS6411: Pathosphysiology

  • Question 1

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A 68-year-old black man who has smoked for at least 50 years reports that lately he feels as though food is getting stuck in his throat. At first this was a problem just with dry food, but now his morning oatmeal is getting “stuck.” On questioning, he reports drinking at least 3 alcoholic beverages nearly every day. Which is most likely his problem?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectD.

    Squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus
    Answers:
    A.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus is the seventh leading cause of cancer death among men, particularly black men; mean age at diagnosis is 67 years. Alcohol and tobacco use are the main risk factors for this cancer, and dysphagia is a common presenting complaint. An esophageal motility disorder involves the smooth muscle layer of the esophagus and the lower esophageal sphincter (LES). Achalasia is characterized by difficulty swallowing and regurgitation. GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease) is a condition that causes the esophagus to become irritated and inflamed. Clients with GERD usually feel a burning in the chest or throat called heartburn. Sometimes, they taste stomach fluid in the back of the mouth.
  • Question 2

    0 out of 2 points

    Incorrect
    The nurse is caring for several clients. Given the typical treatments for each of the listed client conditions, which client should the nurse prioritize as most at risk for acute gastrointestinal bleeding?
    Selected Answer:
    IncorrectD.

    A 45-year-old with hypertension and type 2 diabetes being treated for a foot ulcer
    Answers:
    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The nurse should consider which conditions are treated with ulcerogenic medications. In this group of clients, the client with atrial fibrillation and ischemic heart disease is most at risk. Clients with atrial fibrillation are usually prescribed anticoagulants for stroke prevention, and aspirin (an ulcerogenic non-selective NSAID) would be prescribed for prevention of myocardial infarction related to coronary artery disease. The client at next greatest risk for gastrointestinal bleeding would be the client with rheumatoid arthritis, as these clients are often treated with myelosuppressive medications that can lower platelet counts, and/or corticosteroids which are ulcerogenic. The client with diabetes and the elderly client would be considered lower risk than the first two based on the treatments for their conditions.
  • Question 3

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A client who suffered a stroke is having difficulty swallowing food and beverages. The client complains that it feels like “the food is sticking to the back of my throat.” Given this information, the priority nursing interventions would be to:
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectB.

    make the client “nothing per os” (NPO) and call the physician.
    Answers:
    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: People with dysphagia usually complain of choking, coughing, or an abnormal sensation of food sticking in the back of the throat or upper chest when they swallow. A neuromuscular cause involves lesions of the CNS, such as a stroke, which often involve the cranial nerves that control swallowing. Feeding in upright position is good once it is determined by swallowing evaluation that the client can swallow food without it going into the lungs. Likewise, thickening agents help clients with dysphagia after a swallow evaluation has been performed. No action could put the client at risk for aspiration pneumonia.
  • Question 4

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Parents of a 20-month-old infant report that he refuses food or eats poorly and that he grimaces when he swallows. He also is irritable and cries a lot. The mother is worried that he ate something inappropriate this morning, because he vomited something that looked like coffee grounds. Which health problem would the care team first suspect?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectA.

    Esophagitis from gastrointestinal reflux
    Answers:
    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Esophagitis secondary to reflux can cause feeding problems, early satiety, and hematemesis. Infants may demonstrate signs of pain when swallowing and may be irritable and cry frequently. Rotavirus causes diarrhea and vomiting, but not the other symptoms. Appendicitis is inflammation of the appendix. Appendicitis usually starts with the main symptom of pain around the navel that moves to the lower right abdomen. Hirschsprung disease is a blockage of the large intestine due to improper muscle movement in the bowel. It is a congenital condition, which means it is present from birth. In Hirschsprung disease, the nerves are missing from a part of the bowel. One primary sign/symptom is a failure to pass meconium shortly after birth.
  • Question 5

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    The nurse walks into a room and finds the client forcefully expelling stomach contents into a wash basin. When documenting this occurrence, the nurse will use the term:
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectD.

    Vomiting
    Answers:
    A.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Vomiting or emesis is the sudden and forceful oral expulsion of the contents of the stomach. It is usually preceded by nausea. Nausea is a subjective and unpleasant sensation. Retching consists of rhythmic spasmodic movements of the diaphragm, chest wall, and abdominal muscles. It usually precedes or alternates with periods of vomiting. Expatriate means to banish or withdraw.
  • Question 6

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A 22 year-old student has developed a fever and diarrhea while on a backpacking trip in Southeast Asia. His oral temperature is 101.4°F (38.6°C). The diarrhea is bloody, frequent, and small in volume. These clinical manifestations are distressing enough that he is visiting a local medical clinic in the area. Which diagnosis best characterizes this health problem?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectB.

    Inflammatory diarrhea
    Answers:
    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Inflammatory diarrhea is often characterized by small-volume diarrhea that is bloody and accompanied by a fever. Non-inflammatory diarrhea is normally larger in volume and not bloody. Factitious diarrhea is normally attributable to laxative use and secretory diarrhea is associated with increased secretory processes of the bowel; neither is likely to produce bloody stool.
  • Question 7

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Following a history of gastric pain and an endoscopy, a client has been diagnosed with a duodenal peptic ulcer. Which teaching point should his caregiver provide?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectA.

    “Your family history, your smoking history, and NSAID use may all have contributed to this problem.”
    Answers:
    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Family history, NSAID use, and smoking have all been identified as contributing factors in the development of peptic ulcers. Diet therapy has not been shown to be effective and duodenal peptic ulcers are more common than the gastric variant. Perforation occurs when an ulcer erodes through all layers of the stomach or duodenum wall. When perforation occurs in older adults, their mortality is significantly increased. Effective medication regimens are available with antacids, histamine-2 (H 2) receptor antagonists or proton pump inhibitors being the most common medications used.
  • Question 8

    0 out of 2 points

    Incorrect
    The nurse is assessing a client with suspected dysphagia. Which cranial nerves (CN) should the nurse assess? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:
    CorrectA.

    CN XII
    CorrectC.

    CN X
    CorrectE.

    CN IX
    Answers:
    CorrectA.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    CorrectE.

    CorrectF.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The act of swallowing depends on the coordinated action of the tongue and pharynx. These structures are innervated by cranial nerves V (trigeminal), IX (glossopharyngeal), X (vagus), and XII (hypoglossal). Cranial nerve I is olfactory and CN XI is accessory, neither of which is involved in swallowing.
  • Question 9

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A client reports having diarrhea that has lasted days. Which intervention would the nurse recommend to decrease the diarrhea?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectD.

    Electrolyte drink containing sodium and glucose
    Answers:
    A.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Replacement of fluids and electrolytes is considered to be a primary therapeutic goal in the treatment of diarrhea. Water absorption from the intestines is linked to osmotically active particles such as glucose and sodium. It follows that an important consideration in facilitating the transport of water across the intestine (and decreasing diarrhea) after temporary disruption in bowel function is to include sodium and glucose in the fluids that are consumed.
  • Question 10

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A 71-year-old male has been recently diagnosed with a stage III tumor of colorectal cancer, and is attempting to increase his knowledge base of his diagnosis. Which statement about colorectal cancer demonstrates a sound understanding of the disease?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectC.

    “While diet is thought to play a role in the development of colorectal cancer, the ultimate causes are largely unknown.”
    Answers:
    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The etiology of cancer of the colon and rectum remains largely unidentified, though dietary factors are thought to exist. The prognosis, especially with stage III tumors, is poor. Simple and accurate screening tests do exist for colorectal cancer, while drugs are not implicated in the etiology.
  • Question 11

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    The nurse is caring for a client suspected of having contracted C. difficile. Assessment reveals abdominal distension and new onset fever. What is the nurse’s best action?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectC.

    Notify the health care provider immediately of the findings.
    Answers:
    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The client is exhibiting symptoms of pseudomembranous colitis, which is characterized by an adherent inflammatory membrane overlying the areas of mucosal injury. A history of C. difficile combined with acute symptoms such as lethargy, fever, tachycardia, abdominal pain and distention should alert the nurse that the client may be experiencing this life-threatening condition; the health care provider should notified immediately as prompt therapy is needed to prevent perforation of the bowel. The nurse should not ignore these warning signs and administer the ordered medications as this would delay treatment.
  • Question 12

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A 43-year-old male client has presented to the emergency department with vomiting that he claims is of a sudden onset. The client also states that the emesis has often contained frank blood in the hours prior to admission. His vital signs are stable with temperature 98.3°F (36.8°C), pulse 88, BP 140/87, and respiratory rate 18. Which potential contributing factor would the health care team suspect first?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectC.

    Alcohol consumption
    Answers:
    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Acute gastritis associated with alcohol use is characterized by intermittent vomiting and the possibility of hematemesis. Aspirin and H. pylori do not normally cause such an acute symptom onset and infectious organisms do not normally cause bleeding of the stomach lining. A combination of calcium carbonate and magnesium is commonly found in antacids. Overdose of antacids can result in irregular heartbeat; poor balance; shallow and rapid breathing; and stupor (lack of alertness).
  • Question 13

    0 out of 2 points

    Incorrect
    A client with kidney cancer who underwent exploratory surgery has returned to the postoperative unit with a report of severe burning and indigestion in the epigastric region. Which intervention by the nurse would be priority for this client?
    Selected Answer:
    IncorrectA.

    Administer prescribed pain medications and dim the lights in the room.
    Answers:
    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: People at high risk for development of stress ulcers include those with large surface area burns, trauma, sepsis, acute respiratory distress syndrome, severe liver failure, and major surgical procedures. PPIs work by irreversibly blocking an enzyme called H+/K+ ATPase, which controls acid production. Examples include medications like esomeprazole, pantoprazole and lansoprazole. Most clients are not started on full-liquid diets that include milk products until their bowel sounds return. Sitting the client in high-Fowler position might help with acid reflux, but to prevent stress ulcers, a PPI is required. Pain medication for gastroesophageal reflux disease will not prevent stress ulcer formation.
  • Question 14

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A 53-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse but without visible jaundice comes to the clinic complaining of nausea and weakness. She admits to taking acetaminophen for persistent headaches but denies exceeding the recommended daily dose; she has not taken any other medications. She is suspected of having acetaminophen toxicity. Which diagnostic test finding would implicate a different cause of her symptoms?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectB.

    Elevated serum HBsAG level
    Answers:
    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The presence of HBsAG would suggest that this woman is in the prodromal phase of hepatitis B infection. A normal serum acetaminophen level does not preclude toxicity if the drug is taken over a period of time. Steatosis is fatty infiltration of the liver. Steatosis is often but not exclusively an early histological feature of alcoholic liver disease (therefore, with chronic alcohol abuse, the nurse should expect the client may have steatosis). Drinking heavily without eating can block your liver from releasing stored glucose into your bloodstream, causing hypoglycemia.
  • Question 15

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A client with pancreatic cancer is admitted for portal hypertension and is symptomatic with ascites. Following paracentesis and removal of 7.5 L of ascitic fluid, the nurse should anticipate that the physician will order which medication to assist in maintaining an effective circulating fluid volume?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectA.

    Albumin (Human) 5%.
    Answers:
    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Complications of portal hypertension include ascites, splenomegaly, and hepatic encephalopathy. Following paracentesis to remove ascitic fluid, a volume expander such as albumin is usually administered to maintain the effective circulating volume. Furosemide and bumetanide are diuretics which decrease circulating fluid volume. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production and ultimately increases O 2 carrying capacity.
  • Question 16

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A client is admitted with the diagnosis of obstructive jaundice. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect to see in this client? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:
    CorrectA.

    Dark urine
    CorrectB.

    Severe itching
    CorrectD.

    Elevated conjugated bilirubin levels
    CorrectE.

    Clay-colored stools
    Answers:
    CorrectA.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    CorrectE.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Obstructive jaundice occurs when bile flow is obstructed between the liver and the intestine. Among the causes are strictures of the bile duct, gallstones, and tumors of the bile duct or the pancreas. Conjugated bilirubin levels usually are elevated; the stools are clay colored; the urine is dark; the levels of serum alkaline phosphatase are markedly elevated; and the aminotransferase levels are increased.
  • Question 17

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A client has been following a low-fat diet due to a diagnosis of high triglycerides and to lose weight. The client asks the nurse how it is possible that the extra weight and high triglycerides persist despite taking in such low levels of fat. What is the nurse’s best response?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectB.

    It is important to reduce your total caloric intake, including carbohydrates.
    Answers:
    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The client is asking about the connection between a low-fat diet, triglyceride levels, and weight loss. Therefore, the nurse should explain two key points: (1) triglycerides come from the fat consumed, and (2) when carbohydrates are consumed in excess of what is immediately converted to energy, the excess is converted to triglycerides in the liver. The triglycerides formed in the liver are transported mainly in low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) to the adipose tissue, where they are stored (contributing to weight gain). Exercise can help burn off excess calories but weight loss can be achieved through caloric restriction alone. The client may not need medication if the proper lifestyle interventions are implemented.
  • Question 18

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Which hospitalized client is most clearly demonstrating the signs and symptoms of liver failure?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectC.

    Low hemoglobin levels, low platelet levels, and spider angiomas present
    Answers:
    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Anemia, thrombocytopenia, and the presence of spider angiomas are characteristic of liver failure. High blood pressure, excessive clotting, fever and cardiac dysrhythmias are not common symptoms of liver failure. In liver failure, AST and ALT levels would rise, not fall.
  • Question 19

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    For several years, a single mother of 2 has been averaging 2 to 3 bottles of wine each night and recently has added several ounces of brandy as well. She now has been diagnosed with cirrhosis. Which physical manifestations of cirrhosis would the nurse expect to find during assessment? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:
    CorrectA.

    Ascites
    CorrectD.

    Anorexia
    CorrectE.

    Bleeding tendencies
    CorrectF.

    Epigastric pain
    Answers:
    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    CorrectE.

    CorrectF.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Ascites, anorexia, and bleeding tendencies due to neurological effects and epigastric pain are common accompaniments to cirrhosis. Ascites occurs when the amount of fluid in the peritoneal cavity is increased, and is a late-stage manifestation of cirrhosis and portal hypertension. Epigastric pain is caused by liver enlargement or peritonitis. The peritoneal fluid is seeded with bacteria from the blood or lymph or from passage of bacteria through the bowel wall. Because factors V, VII, IX, X, prothrombin, and fibrinogen are synthesized by the liver, their decline in liver disease contributes to bleeding tendencies. Fever and obesity would be less likely to exist, as the pathology is not infectious in nature and malnutrition and impaired food metabolism are common.
  • Question 20

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    The nurse is caring for the client with extrahepatic cholestasis. Which symptom does the nurse anticipate uncovering during the history and assessment?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectC.

    Pruritus with consequences of deficient levels of fat-soluble vitamins.
    Answers:
    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Pruritus is the most common symptom of cholestasis and deficiencies in fat-soluble vitamins such as A, D, and K are frequent. Flank pain is not a noted complaint, and bile does not contribute to drug metabolism, blood filtration, or clotting factor production.
  • Question 21

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A baby is born to a mother with active hepatitis B. Which medication does the nurse anticipate administering today?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectB.

    Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG).
    Answers:
    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: HBIG is used as an adjunct to hepatitis B vaccine for post-exposure immunoprophylaxis to prevent HBV infections in high-risk populations. Tenofovir disoproxil fumarate plus emtricitabine is for HIV pre-exposure coverage. There is no hepatitis C vaccine available on the market yet. HAV is for hepatitis A vaccine, which is usually spread from the fecal–oral route rather than blood and body fluids.
  • Question 22

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    The nurse is caring for a client with end-stage biliary cirrhosis. What should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:
    CorrectB.

    Promote intake of foods rich in vitamin D.
    CorrectD.

    Monitor client for signs of acute blood loss.
    CorrectE.

    Inspect skin for evidence of breakdown.
    Answers:
    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    CorrectE.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The client with end-stage biliary cirrhosis will have a chronic reduction in bile production, which interferes with the ability to emulsify and use fat-soluble vitamins. Due to a lack of vitamin K, the client can develop an associated risk for bleeding. Lack of vitamin D results in osteoporosis in clients and an increased risk for pathologic fractures, so the nurse should encourage vitamin D intake. This risk, combined with risk for bleeding, warrants a fall prevention program. Accumulation of bile salts and the lack of fat-soluble vitamins impairs skin integrity, so the nurse should prioritize skin care and inspection for breakdown. There is no need to encourage increased intake of fluids. Fever is not a prominent feature of end-stage biliary cirrhosis. The common antipyretics should be avoided (acetaminophen and ibuprofen).
  • Question 23

    0 out of 2 points

    Incorrect
    The nurse is caring for a client with end-stage liver disease who is at risk for hepatic encephalopathy. For which complications that increase the risk for hepatic encephalopathy should the nurse assess? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:
    CorrectD.

    Gastrointestinal bleeding
    Answers:
    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    CorrectE.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Ammonia is produced in the colon by the bacterial degradation of proteins and amino acids, therefore more ammonia will be produced when the bacteria has access to either a greater protein load (such as when a person has bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract) or prolonged contact with colonic contents such as occurs with constipation. Normally, ammonia diffuses into the portal circulation and is transported to the liver, where it is converted to urea before entering the general circulation and then excreted via urine. When the liver is unable to convert ammonia to urea, ammonia accumulates and affects neurologic functioning. Using lactulose to create a more acidic colonic environment (low pH) is one treatment for hepatic encephalopathy. Therefore, a high colonic pH (more alkaline colonic environment) could result in more ammonia entering the circulation. While both low albumin and sodium levels are found in clients with liver failure, these are not associated with worsening hepatic encephalopathy.
  • Question 24

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Four weeks after returning from a tropical vacation, a 40-year-old man has presented to the emergency department with malaise, nausea, and yellow sclera. Serology has confirmed a diagnosis of hepatitis A (HAV). What teaching is most appropriate for this client?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectD.

    A vaccine before your trip would have prevented this, but your body will rid itself of the virus in time.
    Answers:
    A.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: HAV is transmitted by the fecal–oral route; it is normally self-limiting and does not result in chronic hepatitis or carrier status. A vaccine is available. Transmission of hepatitis through contact with blood and body fluids is typical with hepatitis B or C.
  • Question 25

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    While on tour, a 32-year-old male musician has presented to the emergency department of a hospital after a concert complaining of severe and sudden abdominal pain. He admits to a history of copious alcohol use in recent years, and his vital signs include temperature 38.8°C (101.8°F), blood pressure 89/48 mm Hg and heart rate 116 beats per minute. Blood work indicates that his serum levels of C-reactive protein, amylase, and lipase are all elevated. Which diagnosis would the care team suspect first?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectA.

    Acute pancreatitis
    Answers:
    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Alcohol use, fever, hypotension and tachycardia are often associated with pancreatitis, as are elevated serum amylase and lipase levels. These enzymes would be unlikely to rise in cases of hepatitis, cholecystitis, or cirrhosis. The precise mechanisms whereby alcohol exerts its action are largely unknown. The capacity for oxidative and nonoxidative metabolism of ethanol by the pancreas and the harmful byproducts that result have been related to the disease process. Hepatitis C has an incubation period. Most adults who acquire the infection usually are asymptomatic. Jaundice is uncommon. Direct measurement of HCV in the serum remains the most accurate test for infection. Cirrhosis represents the end stage of chronic liver disease. The end result is liver failure that affects many organs. The clients usually have anemia, thrombocytopenia, endocrine disorders, skin lesions, azotemia and renal failure, and hepatic encephalopathy.
  • Question 26

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    An older adult is reporting increasing fatigue and dark stools. On assessment, the nurse notes pale mucous membranes, low hemoglobin and red cell counts, and upper gastrointestional bleed in the stomach via endoscopy. Questioning reveals excess nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) usage to control rheumatoid arthritis pain. Which phenomenon is responsible for the present health problems?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectB.

    NSAIDs can disrupt the permeability of the gastric mucosa, causing hydrogen ions to accumulate in the mucosal cells of the lining.
    Answers:
    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: NSAIDs damage the mucosal barrier, allowing hydrogen ions to damage cells of the stomach lining. They do not directly increase gastrin production or H + levels. Decreased, not increased, prostaglandin synthesis would potentially compromise the gastric surfaces.
  • Question 27

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    The nurse is caring for a client with a disorder that prevents the pyloric valve from closing properly. For which priority complication should the nurse assess?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectA.

    Gastrointestinal bleeding
    Answers:
    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The pyloric sphincter prevents the backflow of gastric contents from the small intestine into the stomach and controls the rate at which gastric contents enter the small intestine. If the sphincter fails, regurgitation of bile salts and duodenal contents can damage the mucosal surface of the antrum and lead to gastric ulcers, which can in turn lead to life-threatening gastrointestinal bleeding; this should be the nurse’s priority. There would not be an increased risk for developing pancreatitis, which is associated with alcohol and certain drugs. Having the pyloric sphincter open will not result in intestinal obstruction. Jaundice is related to excess levels of bilirubin, which is not related to this condition.
  • Question 28

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A resident of a long-term care facility has contracted Clostridium difficile with frequent diarrhea and hyperactive bowel sounds. What process in the small intestine is most likely accompanying the current status?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectB.

    Inflammation is accompanied by an increase in peristaltic movements of the small intestine.
    Answers:
    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Inflammation of the small intestine is accompanied by an increase in motility, an effect that is the result of increased peristaltic waves. Segmentation waves are responsible primarily for mixing rather than moving food. Neither dilation nor inadequate slowing of passage contents are responsible for the increase in motility.
  • Question 29

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    While explaining the function of the first mucosal layer of the lower two-thirds (2/3) of the esophagus, the pathophysiology instructor mentions which type of functions? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:
    CorrectB.

    Secretion of mucus to lubricate and protect the inner surface of alimentary canal.
    CorrectE.

    Barrier to prevent the entry of pathogenic organisms.
    Answers:
    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    CorrectE.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The first layer performs numerous functions. These include production of mucus that lubricates and protects the inner surface of the alimentary canal; secretion of digestive enzymes and substances that break down food; absorption of the breakdown products of digestion; and maintenance of a barrier to prevent the entry of noxious substances and pathogenic organism. The facilitation of movement of contents of the gastrointestinal tract occurs in the third layer while holding the organs in place. Storage of fats occurs in the fourth layer.
  • Question 30

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A parent reports that the child comes home with a stomachache and then a bout of diarrhea every time she has ice cream out with friends. Which conclusion by the nurse is likely most accurate for this child?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectB.

    A deficiency of lactase
    Answers:
    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: People with a deficiency of lactase, the enzyme that breaks down lactose, experience diarrhea when they drink milk or eat dairy products. It is doubtful the child is anxious about the calories in ice cream. Signs and symptoms of gallbladder disease usually occur in relation to high saturated fat intake. Signs and symptoms of a peptic ulcer include bloating, vomiting blood, and foul coffee ground stools.
  • Question 31

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A client with a history of chronic nausea and vomiting but an insatiable appetite has the symptoms attributed to an enzyme deficiency. Which enzyme deficiency is primarily responsible for the large appetite and lack of control of food intake?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectC.

    Cholecystokinin
    Answers:
    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Cholecystokinin is responsible for inhibiting food intake as well as stimulating pancreatic enzyme secretion. Ghrelin stimulates food intake while gastrin stimulates gastric acid production and secretin inhibits it. Gastrin stimulates secretion of gastric acid and increases gastric blood flow. Secretin is secreted in the duodenum and inhibits gastric acid secretion.
  • Question 32

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    When the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, the interstitial cells of Cajal react in which way?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectC.

    Decreasing amplitude of the slow waves, which control the spontaneous oscillations in membrane potentials.
    Answers:
    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The interstitial cells of Cajal that are found in groups between the layers of smooth muscle tissue are hypothesized to function as the pacemakers. These cells display rhythmic, spontaneous oscillations in the membrane potentials, called slow waves, ranging in frequency from ~3/min in the stomach to 12/min in the duodenum. Sympathetic stimulation decreases this excitability, which results in decreased amplitude of the slow waves or abolishes them altogether. The vagus nurse responds to parasympathetic innervation. Gastrointestinal motility is enhanced because of increased vagal activity, which could cause diarrhea.
  • Question 33

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    An infant is being examined for colic-like symptoms that the parent attributes to “hurting.” After feeding, the infant vomits most of the feeding and then assumes a fetal position. The health care provider is associating these clinical manifestations with which childhood complication?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectD.

    Pyloric stenosis
    Answers:
    A.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The infant may be experiencing hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, which can occur in infants with an abnormally thick muscularis layer in the terminal pylorus. A defect in the lining of the first part of the small intestine (duodenal ulcer) is usually caused by an infection with a bacterium (germ) called Helicobacter pylori. When food is ingested and digested but not excreted, it forms a blockage in the colon. Regular bowel movements are needed in order for this not to occur. When bowel movements are irregular, constipation may result. This infant appears to be vomiting the stomach content; therefore no bowel movement is occurring since no food is being digested in the small intestines. Gastrin provides the major stimulus for gastric acid production. Its action on the lower esophageal sphincter protects the esophageal mucosa when gastric acid levels are elevated. If stomach acids reflux into the esophagus, acid irritation, and inflammation cause extensive injuries to the esophagus.
  • Question 34

    0 out of 2 points

    Incorrect
    The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia after suffering a stroke. Which principle related to the phases of swallowing will the nurse employ to best reduce the risk for aspiration?
    Selected Answer:
    IncorrectD.

    Feed the client on the unaffected side to maximize the movement of the bolus during the esophageal phase.
    Answers:
    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: When swallowing, the voluntary oral phase must be executed in a controlled manner to ensure the bolus of food touches the posterior wall of the pharynx and effectively initiates the pharyngeal phase, thereby moving the bolus into the esophagus and not the trachea. Having the client lean slightly forward with a chin tuck gives the client more control over when the bolus enters the area of the pharynx. Having the client at 45° would allow gravity to pull the bolus toward the pharynx, reducing the amount of control the client has in the voluntary phase. Having the client sit up after eating is to help prevent reflux, which can serve to prevent aspiration but is not related to the phases of swallowing. Feeding the client on the affected side should be done, but this will influence the oral phase, not the involuntary esophageal phase.
  • Question 35

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    The nurse is caring for a client on several new medications and is experiencing diarrhea. What medication should the nurse associate with an increased risk for diarrhea?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectB.

    Non-selective adrenergic blocker
    Answers:
    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system is largely inhibitory, producing a decrease in intestinal motility and secretory activity. The sympathetic nervous system is innervated by adrenergic receptors, therefore blocking these receptors will increase intestinal motility and increase the risk for diarrhea. Anticholinergic medications block the autonomic nervous system, which would decrease intestinal motility and place the client at risk for constipation. Opioid analgesics also suppress gastrointestinal motility. Calcium channel blockers interfere with the influx of calcium needed to innervate smooth muscle cells, which can also slow gastrointestinal motility.
  • Question 36

    0 out of 2 points

    Incorrect
    A client is taking methotrexate, an antimetabolite, for cancer known to interfere with cellular DNA synthesis. Which assessments should the nurse prioritize based on the expected gastrointestinal (GI) side effects of this medication? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:
    CorrectE.

    Bowel movements
    Answers:
    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    CorrectD.

    CorrectE.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: A drug that interferes with cellular DNA synthesis will have a greater effect on cells that have a high rate of turnover, such as the GI epithelial cells in the mucosal layer. This means there could be damage to the oral mucosa, nausea, and diarrhea. Neither neurologic nor respiratory status would be affected by an antimetabolite compared to the GI mucosal layer.
  • Question 37

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Which statement best communicates the nature of movements in the colon?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectA.

    Large segments of the colon contract as a unit for around 30 seconds.
    Answers:
    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The colon, unlike the small intestine, moves contents by the simultaneous contraction of large segments. The anal sphincters control defecation rather than movements within the colon and haustrations perform mixing, not motility. Segmentation waves that are local events involving only 0.5 to 1.5 in (1.25 to 3.75 cm) of the intestine occur in the small intestine. The segmentation waves in the colon involve filling and expelling the contents of the haustra, which ensures that all portions of the fecal mass are exposed to the intestinal surface.
  • Question 38

    0 out of 2 points

    Incorrect
    The nurse is planning care for a hospitalized client at risk for malnutrition. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:
    CorrectB.

    Educate client on risks of malnutrition.
    IncorrectD.

    Assess for signs of refeeding syndrome.
    IncorrectE.

    Educate client on dietary restrictions.
    Answers:
    A.

    CorrectB.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    E.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The hospitalized client is at risk for malnutrition for a variety of reasons, including side effects of medications which may affect appetite. Therefore, the nurse should conduct a medication review to identify any offending medications that could be adjusted. The client should be aware of the risks of malnutrition, as motivation to eat—despite lack of appetite—may improve if the health benefits of staying nourished are known to the client. However, teaching the client about what foods he or she cannot eat will not improve the client’s nutritional status; these restrictions are a risk factor for malnutrition. Being isolated when hospitalized is a reason for decreased intake, so privacy should not be given at mealtimes; rather, socialization should be encouraged. The client is not at risk for refeeding syndrome as it is related to active treatment for existing malnutrition.
  • Question 39

    0 out of 2 points

    Incorrect
    When explaining the role of protein and the nine essential amino acid needs of the human body to a group of students, the nurse should emphasize that which foods are complete proteins (foods that provide the essential amino acids in adequate amounts)? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:
    CorrectA.

    Poultry
    CorrectB.

    Milk
    IncorrectC.

    Grains
    CorrectD.

    Fish
    IncorrectE.

    Nuts
    Answers:
    CorrectA.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    E.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Complete proteins most often are derived from animal sources and include milk, eggs, meats, fish, and poultry. There are a few vegetables that provide complete protein sources, including soy and quinoa. Peas, beans, nuts, seeds, and grains contain all the essential amino acids but in LESS than adequate proportions, therefore they are not complete proteins.
  • Question 40

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A 40-year-old female has been categorized as being obese, with a body mass index (BMI) of 33.2. Which health problems place the client at a significantly increased risk when compared with individuals with a BMI below 25? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:
    CorrectA.

    Osteoarthritis
    CorrectC.

    Gallbladder disease
    CorrectD.

    Type 2 diabetes
    Answers:
    CorrectA.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    CorrectD.

    E.

    F.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Obesity is associated with significantly increased risk for osteoarthritis due to bone and joint stress. Insulin resistance and gallbladder disease are also identified consequences of obesity. Cardiac dysrhythmias are less likely to result directly from obesity, given their etiology rooted in electrical conductivity. Multiple sclerosis and other neurologic effects are also unlikely, and atelectasis is not commonly a direct effect of high levels of body fat.
  • Question 41

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A dietitian is working with a morbidly obese client in an effort to facilitate weight loss. Which of the dietitian’s teaching points about the nature of adipose tissue should be included in the client education?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectA.

    “Your fat cells can be considered to be one large energy-storage organ that also has a role in hormone production.”
    Answers:
    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Fat cells are collectively considered a large energy-collection organ; the role of adipose tissue as an endocrine organ has also been recently elucidated. It is neither a desirable or reasonable goal to entirely rid the body of fat, given the key roles it plays in homeostasis, and brown fat is not common in postnatal life. Preadipocytes have been shown to play a role in obesity, but the condition is still primarily a consequence of energy intake exceeding output.
  • Question 42

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Frustrated with his inability to lose weight despite attempting numerous fad diets, a 42 year-old male who is 5’11” (1.8 m) and 270 lbs (122.7 kg) has visited a clinic to gain tools to achieve long term weight loss. Which statement by the clinician is most accurate?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectD.

    “A combined approach of behavior therapy, changing your lifestyle habits, and increased physical activity gives the highest chance of long term success.”
    Answers:
    A.

    B.

    C.

    CorrectD.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: A combined approach to weight loss including diet modification, exercise, and drug therapy has been shown to be successful in the treatment of obesity. In spite of a genetic component, obesity is still considered to be preventable. A reasonable rate of weight loss should be 5% to 10% of total body weight over a 6-month period. A reduction in food intake of between 500 and 1000 kcal, not a total food intake of 500 to 1000 kcal, is often necessary in the treatment of individuals with high BMIs. Pharmacotherapy and surgery are available as adjuncts.
  • Question 43

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A 20-year-old male college student has recently finished a Thanksgiving dinner of heroic proportions while home for the holiday weekend. Which phenomenon would most likely have produced his sensation of satiety?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectA.

    Cholecystokinin and glucagon-like peptide-1 suppress the hunger impulse.
    Answers:
    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The presence of fat in the duodenum and nutrients in the small bowel result in the release of cholecystokinin and glucagon-like peptide-1, respectively, which suppress the feeding center located in the hypothalamus. Leptin and ketoacids are associated with the intermediate and long term regulation of food intake rather than the short-term control that would signal the end of a meal or snack.
  • Question 44

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A male client has a body mass index (BMI) of 31. What information should the nurse include when teaching the client? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:
    CorrectC.

    We will need to further investigate your nutritional status to supplement the BMI value.
    CorrectD.

    Even moderate reduction from your current BMI can offer a wide range of health benefits.
    CorrectE.

    Due to your BMI, you have an increased risk of type 2 diabetes and heart disease.
    Answers:
    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    CorrectD.

    CorrectE.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: A BMI of 31 is classified as obese, and the client faces a risk of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, type 2 diabetes, coronary heart disease, and other health problems. While BMI is a valid instrument, other data sources are needed to supplement this value clinically. Environment and lifestyle factors are a greater contributor to obesity than genetics. Reducing weight from obese even to overweight offers health benefits, as higher BMIs are associated with higher morbidity and mortality.
  • Question 45

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Which statement about types of obesity is most accurate?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectC.

    A waist-hip ratio greater than 1.0 in men can be interpreted to mean upper body obesity.
    Answers:
    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: A waist-hip ratio greater than 1.0 in men and 0.8 in women indicates upper body or central [abdominal] obesity. Upper body obesity is referred to as being shaped like an apple. Waist circumference measures mostly subcutaneous and intra-abdominal adipose tissue. In males, a waist circumference greater than 40 inches (or 35 inches in females) is associated with increased health risk.
  • Question 46

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    Which measures would likely be rejected as part of a first-line weight loss plan for a client with a BMI of 30.2, type 2 diabetes, and hypertension?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectA.

    Gastric bypass
    Answers:
    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Weight loss surgery should be limited to individuals with a BMI greater than 40 or those with a BMI greater than 35 with comorbid conditions in whom medical therapy has failed. Calorie reduction is appropriate for anyone with a BMI of 25 to 29.9 plus two risk factors (in this case, type 2 diabetes and hypertension). Prescription drug therapy can be considered for those with a BMI of 30 or more, and increased physical activity — although it does not lead to significant weight loss — helps prevent further weight gain and reduces cardiovascular and diabetes risk beyond that achieved by weight loss alone.
  • Question 47

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A nurse who works on an oncology ward is providing care for a 68-year-old female client with a diagnosis of lung cancer with bone metastases. The client is experiencing rapid weight loss and is exhibiting the signs and symptoms of malnutrition. The nurse would recognize that which factor is most likely contributing to the client’s malnutrition?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectA.

    Protein mass is being lost from the liver and other organs and the liver is synthesizing fewer serum proteins.
    Answers:
    CorrectA.

    B.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Ill individuals are prone to disruption in protein balance, in which protein breakdown exceeds protein rebuilding. Protein mass is lost from the liver, gastrointestinal tract, kidneys, and heart. As protein is lost from the liver, hepatic synthesis of serum proteins decreases and decreased levels of serum proteins are observed. Autoimmune processes, hypoxia, and malabsorption as a result of metastases are unlikely factors.
  • Question 48

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    When examining types of energy expenditure, which statement is accurate?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectC.

    More active people and those who fidget may have less fat gain than those with decreased non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT).
    Answers:
    A.

    B.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Non-exercise activity thermogenesis includes the energy expended in maintaining posture and in activities such as fidgeting. People with increased NEAT may have less fat gain than those with decreased NEAT. Sympathetic stimulation causes brown fat to generate more heat. Research shows obese clients with excess caloric intake have increased sympathetic activity. Proteins, not carbs, increase metabolic rate more significantly.
  • Question 49

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A client who is being treated for malnutrition develops dependent pedal edema. What is the nurse’s priority action?
    Selected Answer:
    CorrectB.

    Elevate the client’s feet above the level of the heart.
    Answers:
    A.

    CorrectB.

    C.

    D.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: The type of edema that occurs when treating malnutrition is considered benign. This dependent edema results from sodium reabsorption. It is treated by elevation of the dependent area and modest sodium restrictions—so the nurse should elevate the client’s feet. Diuretics should not be requested as they are ineffective and may aggravate electrolyte deficiencies. While it is reasonable to monitor the client’s albumin, weight ,and urine output as part of the routine assessments in this client, these factors will not factor heavily in the treatment of this benign, and expected, edema.
  • Question 50

    2 out of 2 points

    Correct
    A teenager is admitted for complications resulting from bulimia nervosa. The nurse’s admission assessment should pay close attention to which manifestations relating to complications associated with this disorder? Select all that apply.
    Selected Answers:
    CorrectA.

    Missing tooth enamel and increased number of dental caries.
    CorrectB.

    Painful swallowing and stomach cramping related to reflux and esophagitis.
    CorrectC.

    Painless enlargement of the parotid gland due to vomiting.
    CorrectE.

    Dry, cracked lips and poor skin turgor.
    Answers:
    CorrectA.

    CorrectB.

    CorrectC.

    D.

    CorrectE.

    Response Feedback:
    Rationale: Dry, cracked lips and poor skin turgor is associated with dehydration/fluid volume deficit due to vomiting. Dental abnormalities are associated with high acid content of the vomitus. Esophagitis, dysphagia, and esophageal stricture are common after frequent high acid vomitus content. Painless enlargement of the parotid gland due to vomiting is also common in bulimia nervosa clients. Fruity breath and labored, deep, gasping respirations are DKA signs/symptoms primarily caused by undiagnosed or undertreated diabetes.